ISTQB Foundation (CTFL v4.0) Mock Exam #11 — Questions & Answers

Every question in this mock exam, with the correct answer marked and a written rationale behind each option below — for reading and review, not a timed run.

Question 1

In a large system the test manager observes that about 80% of the failures come from 3 of the 20 modules, and focuses extra testing there. Which testing principle does this apply?

Defect clustering

Correct answer

A small number of modules usually contain most defects.

Pesticide paradox

That is about repeated tests losing effectiveness, not where defects cluster.

Exhaustive testing is impossible

True, but unrelated to focusing on high-defect modules.

Testing is context dependent

A different principle about adapting to context.

Why

Defects tend to cluster in a few modules; concentrating effort there is defect clustering.

Question 2

Which statement best distinguishes testing from quality assurance (QA)?

Testing evaluates the product to find defects; QA focuses on processes to prevent defects.

Correct answer

Standard product vs process distinction.

Testing and QA are exactly the same thing.

They are related but distinct.

QA is performed only after release.

QA is process-focused and ongoing.

Testing improves processes, QA finds defects.

Reversed: testing finds defects, QA improves processes.

Why

Testing is product-oriented (evaluating the product); QA is process-oriented (improving processes).

Question 3

Which TWO of the following are among the seven testing principles?

Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence

Correct answer

One of the seven principles.

Pesticide paradox

Correct answer

Repeating the same tests stops finding new defects.

Testing guarantees a defect-free product

No principle claims this; it is impossible.

Exhaustive testing is always feasible

The opposite is a principle: exhaustive testing is impossible.

Why

'Tests show presence of defects, not absence' and the 'pesticide paradox' are principles; the other two are false.

Question 4

During which test activity does a team mainly identify the test conditions (i.e. what should be tested), based on the test basis?

Test analysis

Correct answer

Test analysis derives test conditions from the test basis.

Test implementation

That builds test procedures/data, after design.

Test execution

That runs the tests, much later.

Test completion

That wraps up after execution ends.

Why

Identifying what to test (test conditions) happens during test analysis.

Question 5

Why is it valuable to maintain traceability between the test basis and the test cases?

It lets the team assess test coverage and the impact of requirement changes

Correct answer

Traceability links requirements to tests for coverage and impact analysis.

It automatically fixes failing tests

Traceability does not fix anything.

It removes the need for a test basis

The test basis is what you trace to.

It guarantees 100% defect detection

No technique guarantees that.

Why

Traceability lets you assess coverage and the impact of changes.

Question 6

A test passes in the test environment but the same scenario fails in production. Besides a code defect, which is a plausible cause of the failure?

Environmental differences (configuration, data, integrations) between the two environments

Correct answer

Failures can stem from environmental conditions, not only code defects.

Failures can only ever be caused by code defects

Failures may also arise from environment, data or usage conditions.

The test environment is irrelevant to results

Environment strongly affects results.

Passing in test guarantees passing in production

Different environments can behave differently.

Why

Failures can be caused by environmental conditions or data, not only by code defects.

Question 7

Which TWO statements about quality and testing responsibility are correct in CTFL v4.0?

Quality is a whole-team responsibility

Correct answer

Modern practice shares quality across the team.

Independent testing can find defects the author may miss

Correct answer

Independence reduces author bias.

Only the dedicated test team is responsible for quality

Quality is shared, not owned by testers alone.

Developers should never test their own code

They can and should; independent testing complements it.

Why

Quality is a whole-team responsibility and independent testing can reveal different defects than the author would.

Question 8

Every activity of the test process creates its own testware. Which of the following items is a typical output of the test monitoring and control activity rather than of another test activity?

Test progress reports

Correct answer

Correct — monitoring gathers information on progress and quality and reports it, so that control decisions can be taken during the test effort.

The test plan

The test plan is the main output of test planning. Monitoring and control compares reality against this plan; it does not produce it.

Test procedures and test data

These are created during test implementation, when the tests are organised and everything needed for execution is prepared.

The test completion report

This report is produced by test completion at the end of a test level or project and summarises the whole effort, not the ongoing progress.

Why

Test monitoring and control produces test progress reports (and control directives). The test plan comes from test planning, test procedures and test data from test implementation, and the test completion report from test completion.

Question 9

In which development approach is testing typically integrated continuously across short, repeated iterations with frequent feedback?

Agile/iterative development

Correct answer

Testing is continuous within each short iteration.

Sequential (Waterfall) development

Testing is concentrated in a later phase, not continuous.

Big-bang integration

That is an integration strategy, not a development lifecycle.

No development model integrates testing continuously

Agile does exactly this.

Why

Iterative/Agile approaches integrate testing continuously across short iterations.

Question 10

Component (unit) testing primarily checks what?

Individual components or units in isolation

Correct answer

That is the scope of component testing.

End-to-end business workflows

That is system or acceptance testing.

Interfaces between integrated components

That is integration testing.

User satisfaction in production

That relates to operational/acceptance feedback.

Why

Component testing checks individual modules/units in isolation.

Question 11

Verifying that a web application is operable by users relying on a screen reader is primarily which test type?

Non-functional (accessibility/usability) testing

Correct answer

Accessibility is a non-functional quality characteristic.

Functional testing

Functional tests check what the system does, not how usable it is.

White-box testing

That is based on internal structure.

Confirmation testing

That re-checks a fixed defect.

Why

Accessibility/usability is a non-functional quality characteristic.

Question 12

What typically triggers maintenance testing?

A modification, migration or retirement of a system already in operation

Correct answer

These are the standard maintenance testing triggers.

Writing the first line of code

That is initial development, not maintenance.

Drafting the initial requirements

That precedes any operation.

Designing the first test cases

Test design is part of normal development.

Why

Maintenance testing is triggered by modification, migration or retirement of an operational system.

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are NON-FUNCTIONAL test types?

Performance (load) testing

Correct answer

Evaluates how well the system performs.

Usability testing

Correct answer

Evaluates ease of use, a non-functional characteristic.

Integration testing

That is a test level, not a non-functional type.

Smoke testing

A shallow functional check of basic stability.

Why

Performance and usability are non-functional; integration is a level and smoke is a (functional) test set.

Question 14

After a change to an operational system, how is the scope of the required regression testing best determined?

By impact analysis of the change to identify affected areas

Correct answer

Impact analysis scopes regression testing rationally.

By always re-running every existing test regardless of the change

Often infeasible; impact analysis focuses effort.

By never running regression tests after changes

Changes risk regressions; some testing is needed.

By choosing tests at random

Random selection ignores actual risk and impact.

Why

Impact analysis identifies which areas may be affected and therefore need regression testing.

Question 15

Which kind of issue can a static analysis tool typically detect WITHOUT executing the code?

Coding-standard violations and unreachable code

Correct answer

Static analysis inspects code structure without running it.

Actual response time under heavy load

That requires dynamic execution.

Memory leaks observed at run time

Run-time behaviour needs execution.

User satisfaction scores

That comes from user feedback, not static analysis.

Why

Static analysis finds coding-standard violations, unreachable code, undefined variables, etc.

Question 16

In the generic review process, which activity comes FIRST?

Planning

Correct answer

Defining scope and which work products to review comes first.

Issue communication and analysis

That happens after the review meeting.

Individual review

That follows initiation/kick-off.

Fixing and reporting

That is near the end.

Why

The generic review process starts with planning.

Question 17

Which TWO are genuine benefits of reviews (static testing)?

Early detection of defects in work products

Correct answer

Reviews find defects before code runs.

Knowledge sharing among participants

Correct answer

Reviews spread understanding across the team.

Measuring response time under load

That requires dynamic performance testing.

Guaranteeing a defect-free product

No activity can guarantee zero defects.

Why

Reviews enable early defect detection and knowledge sharing; they don't measure performance or guarantee zero defects.

Question 18

Static testing comprises both reviews and static analysis. Which statement correctly describes what distinguishes static analysis from a review?

Static analysis is normally performed by tools that check code or other formal artefacts against rules and standards, whereas a review is a human examination of a work product.

Correct answer

Correct — the essential difference is who or what performs the examination: tools versus people.

Static analysis executes the code with predefined inputs, whereas a review does not execute anything.

Neither of them executes the test object. As soon as code is executed the activity is dynamic testing, not static testing.

Static analysis can only be applied after the code has been compiled and deployed to a test environment.

Static analysis tools work directly on source code or models and need neither a deployment nor a running system; that is one of their advantages.

A review is fully automated by tools, whereas static analysis must always be carried out manually.

The roles are reversed. Static analysis is the tool-supported part of static testing; reviews rely on human judgement, even if tools may support their administration.

Why

Static analysis is tool-driven: tools examine code, models or other formal artefacts against coding standards and rules. A review is a human examination of a work product. Neither executes the test object.

Question 19

A grading system assigns a band by integer mark: 0-39 fail, 40-59 pass, 60-79 merit, 80-100 distinction. Using equivalence partitioning on VALID marks only, what is the minimum number of test cases to cover each valid band exactly once?

4

Correct answer

One representative value for each of the four valid bands.

3

There are four valid bands, not three.

2

Two cases cannot cover four partitions.

8

That would count boundaries, not partitions.

Why

There are four valid bands, so four test cases (one representative each).

Question 20

A field accepts integers from 10 to 50 inclusive; values outside are rejected. Using the 2-value boundary value analysis approach (each boundary plus its nearest neighbour), which set tests BOTH boundaries?

{9, 10, 50, 51}

Correct answer

Boundary plus its nearest outside neighbour at each end.

{10, 50}

Boundaries alone omit the neighbours.

{9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51}

That is the 3-value approach (six values).

{10, 11, 49, 50}

Uses inside neighbours instead of outside ones.

Why

Each boundary (10, 50) plus its nearest outside neighbour (9, 51): {9,10,50,51}.

Question 21

For the same field accepting integers 10 to 50 inclusive, how many distinct values does the 3-value boundary value analysis approach require to cover BOTH boundaries?

6

Correct answer

Three values per boundary, two boundaries, no overlap.

4

That is the 2-value approach.

8

Over-counts; three values per boundary suffice.

3

Three values cover only one boundary.

Why

Lower {9,10,11} and upper {49,50,51} = six distinct values.

Question 22

Use the decision table below. A 22-year-old driver (under 25) takes premium insurance and has a clean driving record. Which rule applies and what is the outcome?

Car rental surcharge decision table, rules R1 to R8

Rule R5 - Approve with young-driver surcharge

Correct answer

Age N, Premium Y, Clean Y is exactly column R5.

Rule R1 - Approve, no surcharge

R1 requires Age>=25 = Y.

Rule R6 - Approve + young + risk surcharge

R6 requires Clean record = N.

Rule R8 - Decline

R8 requires Premium = N and Clean = N.

Why

Age>=25 = N, Premium = Y, Clean = Y matches R5: Approve + young-driver surcharge.

Question 23

In the decision table below, the two Decline rules (R4 and R8) both have Premium insurance = N and Clean record = N, and differ only in the driver-age condition. Using don't-care simplification, how many columns merge into a single combined rule?

Car rental surcharge decision table, rules R1 to R8

2 (R4 and R8 merge into one rule)

Correct answer

Both Decline when Premium = N and Clean = N, age is don't-care.

4

Only the two Decline columns share an identical action here.

8

Only two columns collapse, not all eight.

1

One column cannot 'merge'; two merge into one.

Why

R4 and R8 share the same action and differ only in a don't-care condition, so 2 merge into 1.

Question 24

For which situation is state transition testing the MOST appropriate technique?

An order whose allowed actions depend on its current status (e.g. paid, shipped)

Correct answer

Behaviour depends on state and events - ideal for state transition testing.

A single numeric input field with an allowed range

That suits boundary value analysis.

A business rule combining several independent conditions

That suits decision table testing.

Measuring code coverage of a function

That is structural (white-box) testing.

Why

State transition testing fits systems whose behaviour depends on the current state and incoming events.

Question 25

Using the order-lifecycle state machine below, which event sequence is a VALID path from Created to Delivered?

Order lifecycle state transition diagram

Created -> pay -> Paid -> pack -> Packed -> ship -> Shipped -> deliver -> Delivered

Correct answer

Every transition exists in the diagram in this order.

Created -> pack -> ship -> deliver

You cannot pack before paying; there is no Created->Packed transition.

Created -> pay -> Paid -> ship -> deliver

There is no Paid->Shipped transition; packing is required first.

Created -> pay -> Paid -> cancel -> Delivered

Cancel leads to Cancelled, not Delivered.

Why

The valid path is pay, pack, ship, deliver.

Question 26

Consider this routine with five executable statements: (1) INPUT n; (2) total = 0; (3) IF n > 0; (4) total = n * 2; (5) PRINT total. Statement 4 runs only when the IF is true. A single test runs with n = 0. What statement coverage does it achieve?

80%

Correct answer

Statements 1, 2, 3 and 5 execute; statement 4 is skipped: 4/5.

100%

Statement 4 is not reached when n = 0.

60%

Four of five statements run, not three.

40%

Only one statement is skipped, four execute.

Why

With n = 0 the IF is false, so 4 of 5 statements run = 80%.

Question 27

Which TWO of the following are white-box (structure-based) test techniques?

Statement testing

Correct answer

Based on executing code statements.

Branch testing

Correct answer

Based on covering decision outcomes in code.

Equivalence partitioning

A black-box, specification-based technique.

Decision table testing

A black-box, specification-based technique.

Why

Statement and branch testing are white-box; equivalence partitioning and decision tables are black-box.

Question 28

A tester, drawing on experience, lists likely problem inputs (empty fields, zero, very large numbers, special characters) and tests them. Which technique is this?

Error guessing

Correct answer

An experience-based technique anticipating likely defects.

Equivalence partitioning

A systematic black-box technique, not experience-driven.

Boundary value analysis

Systematic, focused on range edges.

State transition testing

Based on states and events, not guessing.

Why

Anticipating likely error-prone inputs from experience is error guessing.

Question 29

Which TWO of the following are white-box (structure-based) test techniques? (Choose two.)

Statement testing.

Correct answer

Based on executing statements in the code — a white-box technique.

Branch testing.

Correct answer

Based on exercising decision outcomes in the code — a white-box technique.

Equivalence partitioning.

A black-box (specification-based) technique.

Use case testing.

A black-box (specification-based) technique.

Why

White-box techniques are based on the internal structure of the code, e.g., statement testing and branch testing. Equivalence partitioning and use case testing are black-box.

Question 30

A test approach in which test design and execution begin only after the software is delivered, reacting to the system as built, is best described as:

A reactive test approach.

Correct answer

Correct — tests are designed and run in reaction to the delivered system.

A preventive test approach.

Preventive approaches design tests early, before the code is built.

A white-box test approach.

White-box refers to using internal structure, not the timing of test design.

A confirmation test approach.

Confirmation testing re-tests after a fix; it is not an overall approach defined by timing.

Why

A reactive approach designs and runs tests in response to the delivered software (e.g., exploratory testing). A preventive approach designs tests early, before the software exists.

Question 31

Which of the following is an example of an EXIT criterion for a test level?

Planned coverage has been achieved and no high-severity defects remain open

Correct answer

Exit criteria define when testing can stop.

The test environment has been set up

That is an entry criterion.

Requirements have been baselined

An entry/readiness condition, not exit.

A test tool has been purchased

Unrelated to exit criteria.

Why

Planned coverage achieved with no open high-severity defects is a typical exit criterion.

Question 32

In risk analysis, what does the 'impact' of a risk refer to?

The consequence or harm if the risk materialises

Correct answer

Impact measures how bad the outcome would be.

The probability that the risk will occur

That is likelihood, not impact.

The number of testers assigned

Unrelated to risk impact.

The cost of the test tool

Unrelated to risk impact.

Why

Impact is the magnitude of harm/consequence if the risk materialises.

Question 33

During a test cycle, the manager re-prioritises and reassigns tests because a high-risk area is failing badly. This is an example of which activity?

Test control

Correct answer

Test control takes corrective actions based on monitoring information.

Test monitoring

Monitoring gathers the information; acting on it is control.

Test planning

Planning happens before execution, not as a reaction.

Test completion

Completion wraps up after execution ends.

Why

Taking corrective action based on monitoring is test control.

Question 34

Which TWO items typically belong in a test completion (summary) report?

A summary of the testing performed and the results

Correct answer

Core content of a completion report.

Residual risks and lessons learned

Correct answer

Helps stakeholders decide and improve.

The full source code of the system

Not part of a completion report.

Each developer's salary

Irrelevant and inappropriate.

Why

A summary of testing performed/results and residual risks/lessons learned belong in a completion report.

Question 35

A purely cosmetic text typo on the landing page is fixed urgently because a major launch is tomorrow. What does this illustrate?

Severity and priority are independent - a low-severity defect can be high priority

Correct answer

Business context can raise priority regardless of severity.

Severity and priority are always the same

They are distinct attributes and can differ.

Cosmetic defects must never be fixed

Sometimes they matter a lot (e.g. brand launch).

Priority is set only by developers

Priority is typically a business/stakeholder decision.

Why

Severity and priority are different: a low-severity defect can have high priority.

Question 36

Using three-point estimation with optimistic = 2 days, most likely = 5 days, pessimistic = 14 days, what is the expected duration via (a + 4m + b) / 6?

6 days

Correct answer

(2 + 4*5 + 14)/6 = 36/6 = 6.

5 days

5 is the most likely value, not the weighted estimate.

7 days

Does not match the formula result of 6.

8 days

Arithmetic slip; the correct value is 6.

Why

(2 + 20 + 14) / 6 = 36 / 6 = 6 days.

Question 37

Which TWO factors typically influence a test effort estimate?

The size and complexity of the product

Correct answer

Bigger, more complex products need more testing.

The required quality level and product risk

Correct answer

Higher quality/risk needs deeper testing.

The testers' favourite colour

Irrelevant to effort.

The number of meeting rooms in the building

Irrelevant to test effort.

Why

Product size/complexity and required quality/risk level drive test effort.

Question 38

How does a test strategy differ from a test plan?

A test strategy describes a general, organisation- or programme-level test approach, while a test plan is specific to a project or level

Correct answer

Strategy is generic; the plan applies it to a context.

They are identical documents with different names

They operate at different levels of abstraction.

A test plan is always more generic than a test strategy

Reversed: the strategy is the more generic one.

A test strategy lists the exact test cases to run

That level of detail belongs to design, not strategy.

Why

A test strategy is a general, organisation- or programme-level approach; a test plan is project/level-specific.

Question 39

Which tool type checks source code for standard violations and suspicious constructs WITHOUT executing it?

Static analysis tool

Correct answer

Examines code structure without execution.

Performance testing tool

Runs the system under load.

Test management tool

Manages tests and traceability, not code analysis.

Test execution (automation) tool

Runs test scripts dynamically.

Why

A static analysis tool inspects code without running it.

Question 40

Which TWO are sensible considerations when selecting a test tool for an organisation?

Compatibility with existing tools and processes

Correct answer

Integration avoids friction and rework.

Evaluation of vendor support and ongoing maintenance

Correct answer

Long-term support affects total cost and risk.

How catchy the tool's marketing slogan is

Irrelevant to tool effectiveness.

A vendor guarantee of a defect-free product

No tool can guarantee zero defects.

Why

Fit with existing tools/processes and vendor support/maintenance are sensible selection criteria.

ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Mock Exam #11 — Questions & Answers (2026)